Free CFA Level III: Private Markets Private Debt Practice Questions

Private debt on CFA Level III covers direct lending, mezzanine financing, distressed debt investing, collateralized loan obligations (CLOs), and credit risk assessment frameworks for private credit markets.

61 Questions
21 Easy
22 Medium
18 Hard
2026 Syllabus

Sample Questions

Question 1 Easy
Mezzanine debt is most accurately characterized as:
Solution
B is correct.

Mezzanine debt occupies a middle position in the capital structure — below senior debt but above equity. It is typically unsecured and subordinated, meaning senior lenders are repaid first in a default scenario. To compensate for the higher risk, mezzanine debt carries higher yields (typically 12-20% total return including cash interest and payment-in-kind interest) and often includes equity upside participation through warrants or equity conversion features.
Question 2 Medium
Venture debt is most appropriately described as:
Solution
A is correct.

Venture debt is a specialized form of debt financing provided to VC-backed startups, typically as a complement to equity rounds. It extends the startup's runway without additional dilution. Venture debt often includes warrant coverage (giving the lender equity upside), milestone-based drawdown provisions, and is typically secured by the company's assets. It is most commonly provided by specialized lenders (e.g., Silicon Valley Bank, WTI) and is sized at 25-50% of the most recent equity round.
Question 3 Hard
Assume the sponsor refinances the facility at the end of year 2, triggering the year-2 call premium in Exhibit 1. Annual interest is paid at the end of each year and the loan is funded at par less OID. The realized IRR to Northbridge is closest to:
Solution
A is correct. Northbridge funds at a 2.00% discount, so net proceeds equal 0.98×$350M=$343M0.98 \times \$350\mathrm{M} = \$343\mathrm{M}. The cash coupon is 11.00%×$350M=$38.5M11.00\% \times \$350\mathrm{M} = \$38.5\mathrm{M} per year. At the end of year 2 the borrower repays at 101, returning 1.01×$350M=$353.5M1.01 \times \$350\mathrm{M} = \$353.5\mathrm{M} of principal. Lender cash flows are $343M-\$343\mathrm{M} at t=0t=0, +$38.5M+\$38.5\mathrm{M} at t=1t=1, and +$38.5M+$353.5M=$392M+\$38.5\mathrm{M} + \$353.5\mathrm{M} = \$392\mathrm{M} at t=2t=2. Solving 343=38.51+r+392(1+r)2343 = \frac{38.5}{1+r} + \frac{392}{(1+r)^2} gives r12.66%r \approx 12.66\%. The lift over the 11.33% hold-to-maturity yield reflects OID accretion compressed into 2 years plus the 1% call premium.

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