CFP · Investment Planning · Free Lesson

Asset Allocation and Portfolio Diversification

Free CFP Exam lesson in Investment Planning. 14 min read, ~2,117 words.

Your client owns 30 stocks and thinks she is diversified. Every one is a U.S. large-cap tech company. She has variety. She does not have diversification.

Harry Markowitz proved that portfolio risk is not the weighted average of individual risks. When you combine assets that do not move in lockstep, portfolio standard deviation drops below the weighted average. The driver is correlation.

Correlation ranges from -1 to +1. At +1, two assets move identically and diversification does nothing. At -1, you can theoretically build a zero-risk portfolio. In practice, major asset classes fall between 0.0 and 0.8.

HIGH-FREQUENCY: The exam asks: "At what correlation does diversification begin to provide benefit?" Answer: anything below +1.0. You do not need negative correlation.

The two-asset portfolio standard deviation formula makes this concrete. For 60% Stock A (std dev 20%) and 40% Stock B (std dev 25%) with correlation 0.30:

Weighted average std dev = 0.60 x 20% + 0.40 x 25% = 22% Actual portfolio std dev = square root of [(0.36 x 0.04) + (0.16 x 0.0625) +...

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Common mistakes

Bottom line

Exam shortcut

When the exam gives a client with multiple account types and asks what goes where, use the hierarchy: bonds/REITs in traditional IRA, aggressive growth in Roth, low-turnover index in taxable. Asset location shows up on nearly every form. Remember: "Below +1 = Benefit." Correlation of +1.0 means zero diversification. Anything below +1.0 helps. CML = standard deviation = portfolios only. SML = beta = everything.

The full lesson (about 2,117 words, 14 min read) adds 2 worked examples, all 6 common mistakes, a self-check, free in the app.

Learning objectives

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